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电子科技大学硕士研究生英语分级测验考试PlacementTest带答案

时间：2019-10-10 01:32:29 下载该word文档

Placement Test for Graduate Students

August, 2015

1. 本分级测试主要检测学生英语水平、语言能力和批判性思维能力，为英语教学分班提供依据，望同学们认真答题，体现出自己真实水平。

2. 本测试同时也为教师教学提供参考，测试成绩按一定比例计入平时成绩。

3. 本测试时长共90分钟。测试对速度有一定要求，同学们可参考各部分建议，合理分配答题时间。

4. 第1~30题为听力，请用耳机收听。

5. 所有答案做在机读卡上。

6. 试卷请妥善保管，开学第一周带到课堂。

PART I LISTENING COMPREHENSION (30 minutes, 30 points, 1 point each)

Section A

Directions: In this section, you will hear 9 short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be read only once. Choose the best answer from the four choices given by marking the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine scored Answer Sheet.

1. A. It was wet. B. It was torn.

C. It was dirty with dust . D. It was blood-stained.

2. A. Doctors can do nothing about his problem.

B. It is too small a problem to get treated.

C. Health care is very expensive.

D. Doctors can fix his problem.

3. A. Smoking is stupid.

B. Smoking one cigarette is enough.

C. Smoking in public places is offensive.

D. Smoking is cool.

4. A. Remember this place.

B. Move ahead with the line.

C. Answer the call.

D. Come back quickly.

5. A. He doesn’t drink tea very often.

B. He is not interested in Peking opera.

C. He knows nothing about Peking opera.

D. He enjoys watching Peking opera.

6. A. 885-450-4310

B. 848-405-3140

C. 858-405-3410

D. 405-858-3410

7. A. She’ll help the man out of the trouble.

B. The man has always been in trouble.

C. No one else will help the man except herself.

D. She doesn’t want their relations mentioned.

8. A. John will not stay in jail for a long time.

B. John is a family member with a bad reputation.

C. John has been driven out of the family.

D. John’s job differs from that of his family members.

9. A. She dislikes the smell in the house.

B. She smells something burn.

C. She is afraid that the house is on fire.

D. She feels something is wrong.

Section B

Directions: In this section, you will hear 3 conversations. At the end of each conversation, questions will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. Choose the best answer from the four choices given by marking the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine scored Answer Sheet.

Conversation One

Questions 10 to 14 are based on the conversation you have just heard.

10. What is the purpose of the conversation?

A．The woman wants to make an appointment with the librarian.

B．The woman is trying to reserve a book for her classmate.

C．The woman is inquiring about the availability of study rooms.

D．The woman wants to reserve a different room in the library.

11. Listen again to part of the conversation. Then answer the question.

Why does the man say this:

A．To inform the woman that no rooms are available

B．To encourage the woman to reserve a room now

C．To recommend the rooms on the third floor

D．To let the woman know which rooms are better

12. According to the man, why are so few study rooms available?

A．There are more students now than in the previous year.

B．Several rooms are being used as offices for library staff.

C．There is a problem with students reserving more than one room.

D．Some of the university buildings are still under construction.

13. Why does the woman need a study room?

A．She is preparing for a final examination.

B．Her professor requires everyone to have a study room.

C．She does not have space to study in her apartment.

D．She needs a place to meet with other students.

14. Why does the man say this:

A．To tell the woman about the building that he works in

B．To persuade the woman to accept a room in another building

C．To describe an interesting aspect of the university layout

D．To direct the woman to someone else who can help her

Conversation Two

Questions 15 to 19 are based on the passage you have just heard.

15. What are the students mainly discussing?

A．How music differs from noise

B．Sounds made by musical instruments

C．The methods to produce antinoise

D．Why some sounds are unpleasant

16. According to the conversation, what is noise?

A．The complete absence of sound

B．Patterns produced by sounds in nature

C．Random sound with irregular waves

D．Sounds made by a computer voice

17. Listen again to part of the conversation. Then answer the question.

Select the sentence that best expresses how the woman probably feels.

A．"I'm frustrated because I don't understand."

B．"I'm glad that you know so much about music."

C．"I don't agree with what you are saying."

D．"I wish that I knew how to play the drums.”

18. How does the man help the woman understand the meaning of "antinoise"?

A．By contrasting music and antinoise.

B．By reading a definition from the textbook.

C．By describing the sound of a drumbeat.

D．By telling her about a computer program.

19. What will the woman probably do?

A．Drop out of the music theory class.

B．Listen to recordings of various instruments.

C．Read the textbook before the next lecture.

D．Use a computer to search for information.

Conversation Three

Questions 20 to 24 are based on the conversation you have just heard.

20. Why is the class discussing the technical requirements of murals（壁画）?

A．They are preparing for an examination.

B．They plan to visit some famous murals.

C．They are helping to design a new building.

D．They will be creating their own mural.

21. According to the discussion, what factors should be considered in planning a mural?

A．The position of the observer.

B．The character of the artist.

C．The distance from the lobby to the elevator.

D．The colors of the paint.

22. What does the instructor mean when she says this:

A．A building with a mural will attract a lot of visitors.

B．A mural serves the same purpose as other forms of art.

C．The term "mural" has several different meanings.

D．A mural is an expression of the building's character.

23. What is the purpose of having an air space between the outer wall and the plaster?

A．It will protect the plaster from temperature changes.

B．It will give the mural a greater sense of depth.

C．It will reduce the time needed for drying the plaster.

D．It will eliminate the need to wash the wall frequently.

24. Why does the instructor say this?

A．To explain how a wall can be made stronger

B．To describe the process of framing a mural

C．To explain how to create an insulating air space

D．To describe a technique for texturing a plaster wall

Section C

Directions: In this section, you will hear a short lecture. After the recording, questions will be asked about what was said. Choose the best answer from the four choices given by marking the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine scored Answer Sheet.

Questions 25 to 30 are based on the lecture you have just heard.

25. How does the professor develop the topic of political parties?

A．By comparing the goals of different parties

B．By promoting the views of a specific party

C．By describing parties in a two-party system

D．By explaining how to organize a party

26. Listen again to part of the lecture．Then answer the question.

Why does the professor say this:

A．To test the students' knowledge of parties

B．To find out which party the students support

C．To introduce a point that he will make

D．To show that all states have a two-party system

27. Listen again to part of the lecture．Then answer the question．

What does the professor imply about political parties?

A．Parties make decisions based on the interests of several organizations．

B．Parties can never accomplish everything that they would like to do．

C．Parties carry on their work through the efforts of unpaid volunteers．

D．Parties are necessary in the exercise of democracy in national states．

28. Based on the information in the lecture, answer the question:

Which of the following statements is NOT true about political parties?

A. They are a group of people who come together mainly for amusement.

B. They organize voters and compete for support on major issues.

C. They are voluntary organizations of people who agree on public policies.

D. They have research offices that develop positions on important issues.

29. What does the professor mean when he says this:

A．It is possible to enjoy politics but dislike government at the same time.

B．A political party cares about major issues, but a government doesn't care.

C．Politics is about competition, while government is about responsibility.

D．Elections and government are like two sides of the same coin.

30. Why does the professor say this:

A．To show how major parties usually deal with the same issues.

B．To suggest that both parties should give education more attention.

C．To contrast the philosophy and methods of opposing parties.

D．To point out which party is more concerned with education.

PART II Grammar (10 minutes, 10 points, 1 point each)

Directions: There are ten sentences in this section. Read each sentence carefully. If there is an error, select the underlined part that is incorrect. If there is no error, choose answer D. Mark the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

31. The presence of strong feeling, the cause of which ( A) is not fully understood, always has the effect (B) of making we (C) human beings uneasy. No error (D)

32. I do not wish to make (A) a formal complaint, but I would have been better pleased if you gave (B) the award to the person who (C) best deserved it. No error (D)

33. The tribesmen made offerings to placate (A) the gods, whom (B) they believed, were (C) angry with them. No error．(D)

34. From ancient times (A), sculpture had been (B)　considered the prerogative of men, and even now, in some parts of the world, women sculptors face(C) hostility and suspicion. No error(Ｄ)

35. According to Hume, it is not logic and reasoning that (A) determine (B) our actions, but　(C) emotion. No error.　(D)

36. The general reported that (A), as a result of (B)　financial constraints, less (C) soldiers would be sent on peace-keeping missions this year. No error.（D）

37. The ornate pillars and life-size（A）statues that the magnate has chosen(B) to adorn his swimming pool are like a Greek temple(C). No error.(D)

38. After you have written (A) a definition in your vocabulary notebook, add a few (B) ways to use the word or a sentence to illustrate it's (C) meaning. No error. (D)

39. The racing champion had（Ａ）made no mention（Ｂ）in his speech of the mechanics on whom（Ｃ） his success had depended. No error.（Ｄ）

40. The new law is too（Ａ）stringent; it will be　（Ｂ） neither respected or （Ｃ）obeyed. No error.（Ｄ）

PART III Critical Reading (50 minutes, 30 points, 1 point each)

Directions: Choose the best answer from the four choices given and mark the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

While virtually all scientists accept the principles of evolutionary theory, there remains great uncertainty concerning the mechanism of rapid and drastic change between successive species. In the past, interspecies hybridization was dismissed as a possible solution, since hybrids are rarely as vigorous as purebred species. However, current research on hybridization suggests that although some hybrids are not as virile as either of the parent species, they are often strong enough to pass their traits on. Scientists have also found hybrid species, such as certain types of corn, that are stronger than their parent species, a phenomenon known as “hybrid vigor”. These findings suggest that hybridization plays a far more important role in evolution than previously suspected.

41. It can be inferred that some scientists previously believed that ________.

A. the details of evolutionary theory may never be fully understood

B. hybrid plants lack the ability to reproduce by themselves

C. plants that are robust possess an evolutionary advantage

D. purebred plants play a relatively minor role in evolution

42. The passage implies that most scientists will adopt a theory that ________.

A. includes elements about which little is known

B. cannot be proven by experimental means

C. involves ideas which will likely be disproved later

D. has limited real-world applications

Though most people know the definition of the word “boycott”, few know its origin. Named for Captain Charles Boycott, the word as we know it owes less to him than to Irish nationalist Charles Parnell. Parnell organized Irish farmers and convinced them to fix their rent rates. When Boycott refused, Parnell unleashed the power of the people. A band of hostile peasants forced the Captain’s servants to leave. There were no laborers to gather the harvest and no stablemen to care for the animals. Boycott was not allowed to enter stores or make purchases. Eventually, Boycott and his wife fled Ireland, and Parnell was hailed as the workingman’s hero.

43. The passage is best summarized by which of the following?

A. The origin of a word is explored, and an explanation for its popularity is given.

B. A word is introduced, and a history of its usage is related.

C. An event is described as the reason behind a shift in a word’s meaning

D.A word is introduced, and the history of its coining is related.

44. It can be most reasonably inferred from the passage that _______.

A. Boycott’s land was not harvested that year

B. the townspeople referred to were sympathetic to the farmers

C. Parnell was popular among all Irishmen

D. the farmers threatened Boycott with physical harm

Passage 1:

No major political election in the United States has ever been decided by one vote. In fact, a single vote contributes only about one millionth of the total result of the average statewide election. Considering how numerically insignificant a single vote is, is there any rational justification for an individual to vote? In order to answer this question, one must look past the mere numerical value of a vote. An individual’s vote is valuable as a measure of that individual’s belief in the system of government, which likewise indicates the degree to which a person feels included in the greater social order.

Passage 2:

When recently asked whom he voted for in the last presidential election, a friend of mine replied, “I didn’t bother.” With a rather bored shrug, and little embarrassment, my friend continued, “It’s not like it matters. My vote wouldn’t have changed the outcome.” I couldn’t help thinking then that the argument was uncannily persuasive. If I had stayed in bed that morning, the result would likewise be exactly the same. But the argument does not hold up under scrutiny. If democracy means rule by the people, and not by any one individual, then why should the vote of just one person determine the outcome of an election? No person, no matter who he is, should be able to change the greater will of a collected group. The idea of doing so is simply undemocratic.

45. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the hypothesis of the author of Passage 1 concerning voting behavior?

A. Historical documents reveal that may local elections have been decided by a single vote.

B．A new study finds that many Americans feel that voting is a burdensome inconvenience.

C．A poll of American citizens indicates that most citizens consider voting an important communal duty.

D．Voting records show that most people who vote participate in both national and local elections.

46. The author of Passage 1 would most likely conclude which of the following about the “friend” described in Passage 2?

A. The friend likely feels that he is disconnected from the society in which he lives.

B．Unless he changes the outcome of an election, the friend is unlikely to ever vote.

C. The number of people today who act as the friend does indicates a fundamental flaw in society.

D．People who don’t feel the need to vote are generally satisfied with life as it is.

47. Both passages serve to discourage the ________.

A．inclination of Americans to invent excuses for not voting

B．tendency of voters to avoid making difficult decisions

C．valuation of a vote by its ability to decide an election

D．apathy that some voters feel about the lack of real choices

48. The final sentence of Passage 2 serves to ________.

A．explain the rationale behind a behavior pattern

B．denounce the actions of those who do not vote

C．show the subtle irony of the friend’s argument

D．offer a solution to a pressing problem

1 Laboratory research is at the heart of scientific life; scientists’ real work consists of testing out ideas that come to them as they ponder the mysteries of the world around them. A natural biologist walks through a city park or across a suburban lawn and is half-consciously wondering: Why two leaves instead of three? Why pink flowers instead of white? Such rumination goes on without end in a scientist’s mind, a continuous accompaniment to the rhythm of daily life. Whatever a scientist is doing—reading, cooking, talking, playing—science thoughts are always there at the edge of the mind. They are the way the world is taken in; all that is seen is filtered through an ever present scientific musing.

2 How a would-be scientist decides on a discipline, settles on a problem, and goes to work is often as much a mailer of chance as it is of temperament. One can easily become a chemist or a neuroanatomist because of where one went to school or whose influence one happened to come under as because of a compelling early response to the logic of chemistry or the beauty of the human nervous system. No matter. Once the discipline is established, the problem chosen, and the scientist immersed in the work, he or she becomes as persuaded as need be of the centrality and urgency of the particular work being done. Such adaptive myopia is necessary in science because the grinding, repetitive minuteness of daily laboratory work is so time-consuming (for weeks, months, even years at a time) that, often, even to remember the original impetus for the work is a psychological trick of the highest order. To stimulate the memory back into existence with fair regularity, one must believe in the fundamental importance of what one is doing. Those who do are the most energetic, vital, exciting, and excited of scientists.

3 Carol Steiner, a geneticist, comes up with a fine metaphor for how to make a working proposition of scientific mystery. “Imagine,” she says, “that you have a jigsaw puzzle with no picture printed on it. All you have are pieces you haven’t a clue how to make sense of. The pieces are your separate scientific observations. Here’s an example of how you might try to get a handle on the puzzle:

4 “We have a microorganism with a secretory structure on one end. We know this structure is always on the same place in the cell and that the position of this structure is inherited. The question we want to answer is, how can inherited information be translated into positional information? Why in that one place and no place else? Is the genetic code involved, and if so, how? The answer will tell us how the genes work in concert with the rest of the cell to put things where they belong.

5 “In order to gather pieces of the jigsaw puzzle (that is, pieces of information), we poke at the cell. We change it a little … . A specific mutation that altered the membrane structure of the cell was found to turn off the synthesis of the secretory structure. This was a piece of the jigsaw puzzle. But just one piece. Because we hadn’t a clue as to how this had happened or could happen.” Steiner indicates that there will be many further questions that will suggest experiments whose results may allow us to print pictures on the pieces of the jigsaw puzzle: “Not put the puzzle together, mind you. But help us think about what the picture will ultimately look like.”

6 The realized picture on Carol Steiner’s jigsaw puzzle is the map of gene expression laid out clearly with all roads, pathways, connecting signal points, and railway junctions marked so that any tourist can find his or her way in this beautiful country, which is confusing only when one is wandering about in ignorance—as we all are now—with a highly incomplete map.

49. The primary purpose of the passage is to convey information about the ________.

A. occupational hazards encountered by laboratory workers.

B. problem-solving skills taught by chemists and neuroanatomists

C. professional collaboration necessary for geneticists

D. thought processes distinctive to research scientists

50. In Line 1, the author characterizes “laboratory research” as something that is________.

A. fundamental

B. ambitious

C. challenging

D. time-consuming

51. The author indicates that the process of “rumination” (paragraph 1) is________.

A. subjective

B. vexatious

C. incessant

D. innovative

52. In paragraph 2, “No matter” dismisses as irrelevant the means by which________.

A. science students learn research skills

B. scientists choose research specialties

C. laboratory reports explain methodologies

D. scientific knowledge is perceived by the public

53. The “memory” referred to in paragraph 2 is that of the ________.

A. initial fascination with a scientific goal

B. steps required to establish scientific truth

C. day-to-day repetitiveness of the work

D. relevant training in the academic field

54. The passage implies that the discovery of the “specific mutation”(paragraph 5) was most significant for________.

A. demonstrating the random nature of scientific breakthroughs

B. proving that multiple factors affect microorganisms

C. providing a clue to the solution of a research question

D. justifying the expense of a major research project

55. Which best describes the function of Steiner’s account of her research in the overall development of the passage?

A. A digression from the author’s central argument

B. A refutation of criticisms raised earlier in the passage

C. An observation that challenges previous assertions

D. An example that expands upon preceding generalization

1 The downslope movement of rock, mud, or other material under the influence of gravity is known as mass wasting. While the angle of the slope is a major factor in the potential for mass wasting, the slope is not the sole determiner of mass wasting events. Water plays a significant role, especially where it is plentiful during the rainy season. Earthquakes may cause rockslides, mudflows, and other mass movements. Factors such as the presence or absence of vegetation and human activities can also influence the potential for mass wasting.

2 One way to classify mass wasting processes is on the basis of the material involved, such as rock, debris, earth, or mud. The manner in which the material moves is also important and is generally described as a fall, a slide, or a flow. A fall occurs when weathering loosens boulders from cliffs or rock faces, causing the boulders to break away and fall. A slide takes place whenever material remains fairly coherent and moves along a well-defined surface. A flow involves the movement of debris containing a large amount of water.

3 Many mass wasting processes are described as slides. Rockslides occur when a coherent mass of rock breaks loose and slides down a slope as a unit. If the material involved is mostly separate pieces, it is called a debris slide. Slides are among the fastest and most destructive mass movements. Usually rockslides occur in a geologic setting where the rock layers are inclined, or where there are joints and fractures in the rock that are parallel to the slope. When such a rock unit is undercut at the base of the slope, it loses support and the rock eventually collapses. Rain or snowmelt can trigger a rockslide by wetting the underlying surface to the point that friction can no longer hold the rock in place. The fastest type of slide is a rock avalanche, in which a mass of rock literally floats on air as it moves downslope. The high speed of a rock avalanche is the result of air becoming trapped and compressed beneath the falling mass of debris, allowing it to move down the slope as a buoyant sheet.

4 Mudflows are relatively rapid mass wasting events that involve soil and a large amount of water. Because of their fluid properties, mudflows follow canyons and stream channels. Mudflows often take place in semiarid mountainous regions and on the slopes of some volcanoes. Although rainstorms in semiarid regions are infrequent, they are typically heavy when they occur. When a rainstorm or rapidly melting snow creates a sudden flood, large quantities of soil and loose rock are washed into nearby stream channels because there is usually little or no vegetation to anchor the surface material. The result is a flowing mass of well-mixed mud, soil, rock, and water. The consistency of the mudflow may be similar to that of wet concrete, or it may be a soupy mixture not much thicker than muddy water. The water content influences the rate of flow across the surface. When a mudflow is dense, it moves more slowly, but it can easily carry or push large boulders, trees, and even houses along with it.

5 In dry mountainous areas such as southern California, mudflows are a serious hazard to development on and near canyon hillsides. The removal of native vegetation by brush fires has increased the probability of these destructive events. Past mudflows have contributed to the buildup of fan-shaped deposits at canyon mouths. Such fans are relatively easy to build on and often have scenic views, so many have become desirable sites for residential development. However, because mudflows occur infrequently, homeowners are often unaware of the potential danger of building on the site of a previous mudflow.

6 Highly fluid, fast-flowing mudflows incorporate fine-grained sediment and are common after volcanic eruptions that produce large volumes of volcanic ash. Mudflows containing volcanic debris are called lahars, a word originating in Indonesia, a region that experiences many volcanic eruptions. Lahars occur when highly unstable layers of ash and debris become saturated with water and flow down steep volcanic slopes along stream channels. In the northwestern United States, the eruption of Mount St. Helens in 1980 created several lahars that raced down the valley of the Toutle River, altering the landscape in a relatively short period.

56. All of the following are given as factors in mass wasting EXCEPT ________.

A．the angle of the slope

B．the presence of water

C．the absence of plants

D．the type of mineral

57. The name of a mass wasting process is a reflection of ________.

A．the area in which the movement occurs

B．the material that is moved and the way it moves

C．the rate of movement relative to other processes

D．the mass and volume of the material involved

58. The word “trigger” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

A．prevent

B．imitate

C．cause

D．decrease

59. Why does a rock avalanche move faster than other types of rockslides?

A．The rock moves over a layer of compressed air.

B．The rainfall is heavy where avalanches occur.

C．The rock breaks apart as it moves downslope.

D．The angle of the slope is almost vertical.

60. The underlined word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to ________.

A．result

B．consistency

C．mudflow

D．mixture

61. Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in paragraph 5? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

A．Fire has destroyed much of the original vegetation, so mudflows are now more likely.

B．More damage to vegetation is caused by brush fires than by any other natural event.

C．It is necessary to remove dead and damaged vegetation after a mudflow but not after a fire.

D．Fires occur frequently in areas where the vegetation has been cleared for development.

62. What can be inferred from paragraph 5 about mudflows in some parts of southern California?

A．Mudflows rarely occur more than once in the same location.

B．Mudflows cause the worst damage in areas that are heavily forested.

C．Mudflows occur more often than other natural disasters such as fires.

D．Mudflows are so dangerous because people do not expect them to occur.

63. Why does the author use the word “raced” in paragraph 6 while describing the lahars caused by the eruption of Mount St. Helens?

A．To show that lahars are faster than rock avalanches

B．To state ironically that lahars do not actually move quickly

C．To emphasize the fast speed of lahars

D．To explain why people could not outrun the mudflows

64. Look at the four squares A B C and D, which indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?

Thus, rockslides occur more frequently during the spring, when heavy rains and melting snow are most prevalent.

Many mass wasting processes are described as slides. Rockslides occur when a coherent mass of rock breaks loose and slides down a slope as a unit. A If the material involved is largely unconsolidated, it is called a debris slide. Slides are among the fastest and most destructive mass movements. Usually rockslides occur in a geologic setting where the rock layers are inclined, or where there are joints and fractures in the rock that are parallel to the slope. B When such a rock unit is undercut at the base of the slope, it loses support and the rock eventually collapses. Rain or snowmelt can trigger a rockslide by wetting the underlying surface to the point that friction can no longer hold the rock in place. C The fastest type of slide is a rock avalanche, in which a mass of rock literally floats on air as it moves downslope. The high speed of a rock avalanche is the result of air becoming trapped and compressed beneath the falling mass of debris, allowing it to move down the slope as a buoyant sheet. D

Key: C

(1)Working with the elderly is better than most teenagers realize. (2)This summer I started working at a retirement home for my community service project for my high school. (3)At first I was really scared. (4)Besides with my grandparents, I had never been around other older people. (5)I thought they might assume I was rude or not like my clothes. (6)Surely, we wouldn’t have anything to talk about.

(7)When I arrived on the first day, I looked around me. (8)I had never seen so many old people in one place before. (9)But one thing: there weren’t any hospital beds. (10)Two ladies were watching television in the front lobby, another coming in to sign up for a lecture on computers. (11)several walked by discussing a play. (12)Another gentleman was waiting for a taxi next to his luggage.

(13)I discovered that older people often move to retirement homes to live in a community with people of the same age with good services, not because they are sick. (14)These people were healthy and active. (15)Though, I found I shared more in common with the residents than I thought. (16)There is a chess club. (17)Several take art classes like me. (18)Many of them travel. (19)One couple just returned from Greece. (20)The retirees were excited to have a young person with them to explain computers, talk about books, or tell them what I’m reading at school. (21)They just want to have friends and to learn new things, like anybody else.

65. In the context of the passage, which of the following is the best revision of sentence 4?

A. (As it is now)

B. I had spent little time around older people other than my grandparents.

C. I had spent little time around other older people, but with my grandparents.

D. I had never been around older people, unlike my grandparents.

66. Which of the following is the best way to revise sentence 9?

A. One thing surprised me, though: not any hospital beds.

B. But one thing, there weren’t any hospital beds.

C. One thing: there weren’t any hospital beds.

D. One thing surprised me, though: I didn’t see any hospital beds.

67. Which of the following is the best revision of the underlined portion of sentence 10?

A. (As it is now)

B. lobby, another would be coming in

C. lobby; another would be coming in

D. lobby; soon another resident came in

68. Which of the following sentences would, if inserted before sentence 13, most greatly improve the logical flow of the passage as a whole?

A. I soon learned that I had been wrong to believe stereotypes about retirement homes and older people.

B. This first day was a life-changing experience; I will never be the same.

C. My view of older people changed entirely based on my experiences at the retirement home.

D. I enjoyed my time volunteering at the retirement in more ways than I could have imagined before I arrived.

69. In context, which of the following is the best way to revise and combine sentences 18 and 19?

A. (As it is now)

B. Many of the residents travel; in fact, one couple I met there had just returned.

C. Many of them travel; one couple was just returning.

D. Many of them travel, in fact, one couple just returned.

70. Which of the following could replace “Though” in sentence 15 to clarify the relationship between sentences 14 and 15?

A. Furthermore

B. Therefore

C. Nevertheless

D. So

Placement Test for Graduate Students

August, 2012

7. 本分级测试主要检测学生英语听力水平和其它基本语言能力，为英语教学分班提供依据，望同学们认真答题，体现出自己真实水平。

8. 本测试同时也为教师教学提供参考，测试成绩按一定比例计入平时成绩。

9. 本测试时长共90分钟。测试对速度有一定要求，同学们可参考各部分建议，合理分配答题时间。

10. 第1~25题为听力，请用耳机收听。

11. 所有答案做在机读卡上。

12. 试卷请妥善保管，开学第一周带到课堂。

PART I LISTENING COMPREHENSION (25 minutes, 25 points, 1 point each)

Section A

Directions: In this section, you will hear nine short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be read only once. Choose the best answer from the four choices given by marking the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

1. A. She is conceited.

B. She is too shy to apply.

C. She is intelligent.

D. She is in fashion.

2. A. A car store manager.

B. A mechanic.

C. A driving examiner.

D. A shop assistant.

3. A. Borrow her notebook.

B. Check the dining hall again.

C. Buy a new notebook.

D. Ask about the notebook at the information desk.

4. A. Ask the graduate assistant for help.

B. Talk to an assistant about dropping the course.

C. Work on the assignment with a classmate.

D. Spend more time working on literature course.

5. A. He has already finished his report.

B. He hasn’t completed his report.

C. The woman’s report is already long enough.

D. The woman will have time to finish her report.

6. A. He is curious.

B. He is impatient.

C. He is exhausted.

D. He is content.

7. A. To protect her from getting scratches.

B. To help relieve her of the pain.

C. To prevent mosquito bites.

D. To avoid getting sun burnt.

8. A. The woman should decide where to eat on Friday.

B. The woman should ask her sister for a suggestion.

C. He will make a reservation at the restaurant.

D. He already has plans for Friday night.

9. A. Play in the tournament.

B. Watch TV.

C. Go to the cinema.

D. Go to the tennis court.

Section B

Directions: In this section you will hear two mini-talks. At the end of each talk there will be some questions. Both the talks and the questions will be read to you only once. After each question, there will be a pause. During the pause, you must choose the best answer from the four choices given by marking the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

Mini-talk one

10. A. Encouraging.

B. Boring.

C. Exhausting.

D. Useful.

11. A. Passively.

B. Positively.

C. Critically.

D. Doubtfully.

12. A. It keeps haunting her.

B. Her teaching was somewhat affected by it.

C. It goes away the moment she steps into her role.

D. Her mind goes blank once she gets on the stage.

Mini-talk Two

13. A. The U.S. in the 19th century.

B. International trade in the 19th century.

C. Farmers in the United States.

D. Farmers’ loss of independence.

14. A. They relied on themselves.

B. They relied on others in commerce.

C. They were controlled by banks.

D. They didn’t work hard as before.

15. A. Prices for farm products increased.

B. Farmers became more dependent on loans from banks.

C. Jefferson established government projects to assist farmers.

D. Farmers relied less on foreign trade.

Section C

Directions: In this section you will hear a short lecture. Listen to the recording and decide whether the following statements are true or false. You will hear the recording twice. After the recording you are asked to mark the sentences with A for TRUE and B for FALSE on the Answer Sheet. You now have 25 seconds to read the notes below.

(请注意, 在答题卡上用A表示TRUE, B表示FALSE)

16. A. (True) / B. (False): Scholars of the classical and medieval worlds almost didn’t know the idea of “reading to oneself”.

17. A. (True) / B. (False): Silent reading is based on the idea that reading aloud is a distraction to others.

18. A. (True) / B. (False): Both literacy and the number of readers were on a steady gradual increase in the 19th century.

19. A. (True) / B. (False): As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common, reading became a private activity in some public places.

20. A. (True) / B. (False): The old shared literacy culture can even be found in today’s specialized readership.

Section D

Directions: In this section you will hear several news items. Listen to them carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

Question 21 is based on the following news. At the end of the news item, you will be given 5 seconds to answer the questions.

Now, listen to the news.

21. This year, ________ skilled workers from outside European Economic Area will be allowed into UK.

A. 6,300

B. 21,700

C. 28,000

D. 40,000

Question 22 and 23 are based on the following news. At the end of the news item, you will be given 10 seconds to answer the questions.

Now, listen to the news.

22. Four journalists are honored by the Committee to Protect Journalists because _______.

A. they risked their lives to do their jobs

B. they went into prison to do reports

C. they were killed while doing their jobs

D. they traveled around the world to find out the truth

23. This year, the International Freedom Award will be awarded in ________.

A. Paris B. London C. New York D. Washington

Question 24 and 25 are based on the following news. At the end of the news item, you will be given 10 seconds to answer the questions.

Now, listen to the news.

24. How many passengers are expected to travel by air during the Thanksgiving holiday period?

A. About 1.3 million.

B. About 2.5 million.

C. About 24 million.

D. About 69 million.

25. A large number of fliers in America are likely to go through ________.

A. full-body scanning

B. enhanced pat-downs

C. parcel scanning

D. metal detector lines

PART II VOCABULARY (10 minutes, 20 points, 1 point each)

Directions: There are twenty questions in this section. Each question is a sentence with something missing. Below each sentence are four words or phrase marked A, B, C, or D. Choose one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Mark the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

26. The city will ______ these buildings to make room for the new highway.

A. tear off 　　 B. tear out C. tear away 　　 D. tear down

27. The newly-elected president is determined to ______ the established policy of developing agriculture.

A. go for 　　 B. go on C. go by 　　 D. go up

28. The Beatles, the most famous British band of the 1960s, traveled worldwide for many years, ______ cultural barriers.

A. transporting 　　 B. transplanting 　　 C. transferring 　 D. transcending

29. His companions have threatened to ______ his crime to the police.

A. impose B. expose C. enclose D. express

30. You must insist that students give a truthful answer ______ with the reality of their world.

A. relevant B. simultaneous C. consistent D. practical

31. He was ______ admittance to the concert hall for not being properly dressed.

A. rejected B. denied C. withheld D. deprived

32. George has a big coffee ______ on the front of his jacket.

A. spot B. mark C. stain D. patch

33. The scientists have absolute freedom as to what research they think is best to ______.

A. engage B. devote C. seek D. pursue

34. More often than not it is difficult to ______ the exact meaning of a Chinese idiom in English.

A. exchange B. transfer C. convey D. convert

35. The motorist had to ______ to avoid knocking the old woman down in the middle of the road.

A. swerve B. twist C. depart D. swing

36. During the summer holiday season it is difficult to find a(n)______ room in the hotels here.

A. empty B. vacant C. free D. deserted

37. The old couple will never ______ the loss of their son.

A. get over B. get away C. get off D. get across

38. The ______ of AIDS has led to an expansion in research seeking a cure.

A. innovation B. selection C. proliferation D. conviction

39. Many automobile accidents were ______ careless driving.

A. attributed to B. resulted in C. contributed to D. raised from

40. Every year, one student in our high school wins a scholarship that ______ one year of college.

A. improves B. subsidizes C. obliges D. inflicts

41. He wrote the book in ______ with his wife.

A. proportion B. installment C. correspondence D. collaboration

42. It was the driver’s ______ that caused him to step on the gas instead of the brake after his car went over the curb.

A. fraud B. alarm C. terror D. panic

43. Danny left this ______ message on my answering machine: I must see you. Meet me at twelve o’clock.” Did he mean noon or midnight?

A. ambiguous B. responsible C. implicit D. thoughtful

44. Of course, most immigrants did not get rich overnight, but the ______ of them were eventually able to improve upon their former standard of living.

A. maximum B. minority C. majority D. minimum

45. Our ______ sensitivity decreases with age. By age 60, most people have lost 40 percent of their ability to smell and 50 percent of their taste buds.

A. sensible B. senseless C. sensitive D. sensory

PART III CLOZE TEST (15 minutes, 15 points, 1 point each)

Directions: There are 15 questions in this part of the test. Read the passage through. Then, go back and choose one suitable word or phrase marked A, B, C, or D for each blank in the passage. Mark the corresponding letter of the word or phrase you have chosen with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

It is all very well to blame traffic jams, the cost of petrol and the quick pace of modern life, but manners on the roads are becoming horrible. Everybody knows that the nicest men become monsters (46) ______ the wheel. It is all very well, again, to have a tiger in the tank, but to have one in the driver's seat is another matter altogether. You might tolerate the odd road-hog, the rude and inconsiderate driver, but nowadays the well-mannered motorist is the (47) ______ to the rule. Perhaps the situation (48) ______ a "Be Kind to Other Drivers" campaign, (49) ______ it may get completely (50) ______.

Road politeness is not only good manners, but good sense too. It takes the most cool-headed and good-tempered of drivers to (51) ______ the temptation to revenge when (52) ______ to uncivilized behavior. On the other hand, a little politeness goes a long way towards (53) ______ the tensions of motoring. A friendly nod or a wave of acknowledgement in (54) ______ to an act of politeness helps to create an atmosphere of goodwill and tolerance so necessary in modern traffic conditions. But such acknowledgements of politeness are all too (55) ______ today. Many drivers nowadays don't even seem able to recognize politeness when they see it.

(56) ______, misplaced politeness can also be dangerous. Typical examples are the driver who brakes (57) ______ to allow a car to emerge (58) ______ a side street at some hazard to following traffic, (59) ______ a few seconds later the road would be clear anyway; or the man who waves a child across a zebra crossing into the path of oncoming vehicles that may be unable to stop (60) ______.

Years ago the experts warned us that the car- ownership explosion would demand a lot more give-and-take from all road users. It is high time for all of us to take this message to heart.

46. A. on B. above C. behind    D. by
47. A. exclusion B. exception    C. modification D. access
48. A. calls for B. calls out   C. calls upon    D. calls up
49. A. moreover   B. while   C. otherwise     D. till
50. A. out of hand B. in hand    C. at hand    D. off hand
51. A. resist     B. persist    C. consist          D. insist
52. A. subject   B. being subjected    C. subjected     D. is subjected
53. A. dismissing B. relieving   C. releasing     D. removing
54. A. appeal    B. approach      C. reflection    D. response
55. A. common        B. rare      C. extraordinary D. unique
56. A. Therefore   B. Furthermore C. However        D. Thus
57. A. politely     B. carefully    C. vigorously     D. violently
58. A. at         B. on          C. to              D. from
59. A. though   B. when         C. where         D. which
60. A. on time      B. in time      C. at a time      D. at times

PART IV Fast Reading (30 minutes, 19 points, 1 point each)

Directions: In this part of the test, there are TWO passages. Read each passage carefully, and then answer the questions that follow. Choose the best answer from the four choices given and mark the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

Passage 1:

The agricultural revolution in the nineteenth century involved two things: the invention of labor-saving machinery and the development of scientific agriculture. Labor-saving machinery naturally appeared first where labor was scarce. "In Europe", said Thomas Jefferson, "the object is to make the most of their land, labor being abundant; here it is to make the most of our labor, land being abundant". It was in the United States, therefore, that the great advances in nineteenth-century agricultural machinery first came.

　　At the opening of the century, with the exception of a crude plow, farmers could have carried practically all of the existing agricultural implements on their backs; by 1860, most of the machinery in use today had been designed in an early form. The most important of the early inventions was the iron plow. As early as 1790 Charles Newbold of New Jersey had been working on the idea of a cast-iron plow and spent his entire fortune in introducing his invention. The farmers, however, were not interested in it, claiming that the iron poisoned the soil and made the weeds grow. Nevertheless, many people devoted their attention to the plow, until in 1869 James Oliver of South Bend, Indiana, turned out the first chilled-steel plow.

61. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The need for agricultural advances to help feed a growing population

B. The development of safer machines demanded by the labor movement

C. Machinery that contributed to the agricultural revolution

D. New Jersey as a leader in the agricultural revolution

62. The word "naturally" in line 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

　　A. unsurprisingly

　　B. gradually

　　C. apparently

　　D. safely

63. Which of the following can be inferred from what Thomas Jefferson said?

　　A. Europe was changing more quickly than the United States.

　　B. Europe had greater need of farm machinery than the United States did.

　　C. The United States was finally running out of good farmland.

　　D. There was a shortage of workers on United States farms.

64. What point is the author making by stating that farmers could carry nearly all their tools on their backs?

　　A. Farmers had few tools before the agricultural revolution.

　　B. People in the United States were traditionally self-reliant.

　　C. Life on the farm was extremely difficult.

　　D. New tools were designed to be portable.

65. When was the iron plow invented?

　　A. In 1790.

　　B. In the early 1800s.

　　C. In 1869.

D. In the early 1900s.

66. The word "it" in line 12 refers to ______.

　　A. scientific agriculture

　　B. James Oliver’s invention

　　C. the cast-iron plow

　　D. Charles Newbold’s fortune

Passage 2:

Lost for Words

Many minority languages are on the danger list

In the Native American Navajo nation, which sprawls across four states in the American south-west, the native language is dying. Most of its speakers are middle-aged or elderly. Although many students take classes in Navajo, the schools are run in English. Street signs, supermarket goods and even their own newspaper are all in English. Not surprisingly, linguists doubt that any native speakers of Navajo will remain in a hundred years’ time.

Navajo is far from alone. Half the world’s 6,800 languages are likely to vanish with two generations--that’s one language lost every ten days. Never before has the planet’s linguistic diversity shrunk at such a pace. ‘At the moment, we are heading for about three or four languages dominating the world,’ says Mark Pagel, an evolutionary biologist at the University of Reading. ‘It’s a mass extinction, and whether we will ever rebound from the loss is difficult to know.’

Isolation breeds linguistic diversity: as a result, the world is peppered with languages spoken by only a few people. Only 250 languages have more than a million speakers, and at least 3,000 have fewer than 2,500. It is not necessarily these small languages that are about to disappear. Navajo is considered endangered despite having 150,000 speakers. What makes a language endangered is not just the number of speakers, but how old they are. If it is spoken by children it is relatively safe. The critically endangered languages are those that are only spoken by the elderly, according to Michael Krauss, director of the Alassk Native Language Center, in Fairbanks.

Why do people reject the language of their parents? It begins with a crisis of confidence, when a small community finds itself alongside a larger, wealthier society, says Nicholas Ostler, of Britain’s Foundation for Endangered Languages, in Bath. ‘People lose faith in their culture,’ he says. ‘When the next generation reaches their teens, they might not want to be induced into the old traditions.’

The change is not always voluntary. Quite often, governments try to kill off a minority language by banning its use in public or discouraging its use in schools, all to promote national unity. The former US policy of running Indian reservation schools in English, for example, effectively put languages such as Navajo on the danger list. But Salikoko Mufwene, who chairs the Linguistics department at the University of Chicago, argues that the deadliest weapon is not government policy but economic globalization. ‘Native Americans have not lost pride in their language, but they have had to adapt to social-economic pressures,’ he says. ‘They cannot refuse to speak English if most commercial activity is in English.’ But are languages worth saving? At the very least, there is a loss of data for the study of languages and their evolution, which relies on comparisons between languages, both living and dead. When an unwritten and unrecorded language disappears, it is lost to science.

Language is also intimately bound up with culture, so it may be difficult to preserve one without the other. ‘If a person shifts from Navajo to English, they lose something,’ Mufwene says. ‘Moreover, the loss of diversity may also deprive us of different ways of looking at the world,’ says Pagel. There is mounting evidence that learning a language produces physiological changes in the brain. ‘Your brain and mine are different from the brain of someone who speaks French, for instance,’ Pagel says, and this could affect our thoughts and perceptions. ‘The patterns and connections we make among various concepts may be structured by the linguistic habits of our community.’

So despite linguists’ best efforts, many languages will disappear over the next century. But a growing interest in cultural identity may prevent the direst predictions from coming true. ‘The key to fostering diversity is for people to learn their ancestral tongue, as well as the dominant language,’ says Doug Whalen, founder and president of the Endangered Language Fund in New Haven, Connecticut. ‘Most of these languages will not survive without a large degree of bilingualism,’ he says. In New Zealand, classes for children have slowed the erosion of Maori and rekindled interest in the language. A similar approach in Hawaii has produced about 8,000 new speakers of Polynesian languages in the past few years. In California, ‘apprentice’ programmes have provided life support to several indigenous languages. Volunteer ‘apprentices’ pair up with one of the last living speakers of a Native American tongue to learn a traditional skill such as basket weaving, with instruction exclusively in the endangered language. After about 300 hours of training they are generally sufficiently fluent to transmit the language to the next generation. But Mufwene says that preventing a language dying out is not the same as giving it new life by using it every day. ‘Preserving a language is more like preserving fruits in a jar,’ he says.

However, preservation can bring a language back from the dead. There are examples of languages that have survived in written form and then been revived by later generations. But a written form is essential for this, so the mere possibility of revival has led many speakers of endangered languages to develop systems of writing where none existed before.

Question 67-70: Choose the most appropriate word for each blank to complete the summary of the passage.

There are currently approximately 6,800 languages in the world. This great variety of languages came about largely as a result of geographical (67) _____ But in today’s world, factors such as government initiatives and (68) _____ are contributing to a huge decrease in the number of languages. One factor which may help to ensure that some endangered languages do not die out completely is people’s increasing appreciation of their (69) _____. This has been encouraged through programmes of language classes for children and through ‘apprentice’ schemes, in which the endangered language is used as the medium of instruction to teach people a (70) _____. Some speakers of endangered languages have even produced writing systems in order to help secure the survival of their mother tongue.

67. A. result B. difference C. diversity D. isolation

68. A. adaptation B. policies C. encouragement D. laws

69. A. value B. use C. teaching D. function

70. A. skill B. language C. lesson D. word

Question 71-75: Who gave out the following statements? Choose the person who gave out each statement.

71. Endangered languages cannot be saved unless people learn to speak more than one language.